I think you are confused on the core issue.
There can be no reasoning for it, because there is no treaty barring military industry in the former Axis nations. Immediately after WWII in Europe ended, the Cold War on the still bloody exact same ground started. There were new players on both sides, but both struggles were an East-West thing. Those nations in Europe not under Soviet control were under direct, openly-stated threat to become under Soviet control. As a side note, that even included Japan, against whom Russia had declared war days before the war’s end. Thus all the European nations now aligned with the West continued their national programs of building, fielding, and supplying their national defense efforts—they just pointed their weapons the other direction.
All of the Axis nations have military industry, and all of them are Allied nations today. Allies, Coalition, whatever—they’re all the good guys now.
- Why did Churchill push so hard for the campaign in North Africa in WWII?
- ¿Qué hizo que la Wehrmacht fuera la fuerza de combate más efectiva en ese momento?
- ¿Cómo fue el fascismo una causa de la Segunda Guerra Mundial?
- ¿Cómo se vieron afectados los hijos y nietos de los soldados británicos que lucharon en la Segunda Guerra Mundial?
- ¿Cómo debo responder a la afirmación de que “el Reino Unido y Francia causaron el surgimiento de la Alemania nazi, culparlos por la Segunda Guerra Mundial y el Holocausto”?